1. What is the role of the NMC? 

a) To represent or campaign on behalf of nurses and midwifes 

b) To regulate hospital or other healthcare settings in the UK 

c) To regulate health care assistance 

d) To regulate nurses and midwives in the UK to protect the public 

2. What is the purpose of The NMC Code? 

a) It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures 

b) It ascertains in detail a nurse’s or midwife’s clinical expertise 

c) It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives 

3. All are purposes of NMC except: 

a) NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland. 

b) It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver high quality 

healthcare throughout their careers. 

c) It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional standards. 

d) It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.

d) Communication 

13. Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental values for nursing, midwifery and care staff set out in compassion in 

Practice Nursing, Midwifery & care staff? 

a) Care 

b) Consideration 

c) Communication 

d) Compassion 

14. A nurse delegates duty to a health assistant, what NMC standard she should keep in mind while doing this? 

a) She transfers the accountability to care assistant 

b) RN is accountable for care assistant’s actions 

c) No need to assess the competency, as the care assistant is expert in her care area 

d) Healthcare assistant is accountable to only her senior 

15. According to law in England, UK when you faced with a situation of emergency what is your action? 

a) Should not assist when it is outside of work environment 

b) Law insists you to stop and assist 

c) You are not obliged in any way but as a professional duty advises you to stop and assist 

d) Do not involve in the situation 

16.A patient has been assessed as lacking capacity to make their own decisions, what government legislation or act should 

be referred to: 

a) Health and Social Care Act (2012) 

b) Mental capacity Act (2005) 

c) Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) 

d) All of the above 

17. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to?

a) Their own assessment

b) Financial support

c) Respite care

d) All of the above

18. How many steps to discharge planning were identified by the Department of Health (DH 2010)?

a) 5 steps

b) 8 steps

c) 10 steps

d) 12 steps

19. The single assessment process was introduced as part of the National Service Framework for Older People (DH 2001) in

order to improve care for this groups of patients.

a) True

b) False

20. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to?

a) Their own assessment

b) Financial support

c) Respite care

d) All of the above

21. Which law provides communication aid to patient with disability?

a) Communication Act

b) Equality Act

c) Mental Capacity Act

d) Children and Family Act

22. What law should be taken into consideration when a patient has hearing difficulties and would need hearing aids?

a) Mental capacity Act

b) Equality act 

c) Communication law 

23. Hearing aid provide to client comes under which act? 

a) communication act 

b) mental capacity act 

c) children and family act. 

d) Equality Act 

24. Mental Capacity Act 2005 explores which of the following concepts: 

a) Mental capacity, advance treatment decisions, and act’s code of practice 

b) Mental capacity, independent mental capacity advocates, and the act’s code of practice 

c) Mental capacity, advance treatment decisions, independent mental capacity advocates, and the act’s code of practice 

d) Mental capacity and the possible ethical and legal dilemmas in its interpretation. 

25. A patient has been assessed as lacking capacity to make their own decisions, what government legislation or act should 

be referred to: 

a) Health and Social Care Act (2012) 

b) Mental capacity Act (2005) 

c) Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) 

d) All of the above 

26. An enquiry was launched involving death of one of your patients. The police visited your unit to investigate. When 

interviewed, which of the following framework will best help assist the investigation? 

a) Data Protection Act 2005 

b) Storage of Records Policy 

c) Consent policy 

d) Confidentiality guidelines 

27. Which of the following statements is false?

d) Sexual Abuse 

32. Gabriella is 26 year old woman with severe learning disabilities. She is usually happy and outgoing. Her mobility is good, her 

speech is limited but she is able to be involved if carers take time to use simple language. She lives with her mother, and is 

being assisted with personal care. Her home care worker has noticed bruising on upper insides of her thighs and arms. The

genital area was red and sore. She told the care worker that a male care worker is her friend and he has been cuddling her 

but she does not like the cuddling because it hurts. What could possibly be the type of abuse Gabriella is experiencing? 

a) Discriminatory Abuse 

b) Financial Abuse 

c) Sexual Abuse 

d) Institutional Abuse 

33. You have noticed that the management wants all residents to be up and about by 8:30 am, so they can be ready for breakfast. 

Mrs X has refused to get up at 8 am, and she wants to have a bit of a lie in, but one of the carers insisted to wash and dress 

her, and took her to the dining room. What type of abuse in in place? 

a) Financial Abuse 

b) Psychological Abuse 

c) Sexual Abuse 

d) Institutional Abuse 

34. Patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about the mental capacity of the patient, what decision should 

be made? 

a) call the police 

b) call the security 

c) let the patient go 

d) encourage the patient to wait by telling the need for treatment 

35. You are in a registered nurse in a community giving health education to a patient and you notice that the student nurse 

is using his cell phone to text, what should you do? 

a) Tell the student to leave and emphasize what a disappointment she is 

b) Report the student to his Instructor after duty

c) Politely signal the student and encourage him by actively including him in the discussion

36. A person supervising a nursing student in the clinical area is called as:

a) mentor

b) preceptor

c) interceptor

d) supervisor

37. Training of student nurses is the responsibility of:

a) Ward in charge

b) Senior nurses

c) Team leaders

d) All RNS

38. You can delegate medication administration to a student if:

a) The student was assessed as competent

b) Only under close, direct supervision

c) The patient has only oral medication

39. A community health nurse, with second year nursing students is collecting history in a home. Nurse notices that a student

Also Read:  Top 15 HVAC inspector interview questions answers pdf

is not at all interested in what is going around and she is chatting in her phone. Ideal response?

a) Ask the student to leave the group

b) Warn her in public that such behaviours are not accepted

c) Inform to the principal

d) Talk to her in private and make her aware that such behaviours could actually belittle the profession

40. In supervising a student nurse perform a drug rounds, the NMC expects you to do the following at all times:

a) supervise the entire procedure and the sign the chart

b) allow student to give drugs and sign the chart at the end of shift

c) delegate the supervision of the student to a senior nursing assistant and ask for feedback

d) allow the student to observe but not signing on the chart

41. A nurse preceptor is working with a new nurse and notes that the new nurse is reluctant to delegate tasks to members of

the care team. The nurse preceptor recognizes that this reluctance most likely is due to

a) Role modelling behaviours of the preceptor

b) The philosophy of the new nurse’s school of nursing

c) The orientation provided to the new nurse

d) Lack of trust in the team members

42. Being a student, observe the insertion of an ICD in the clinical setting. This is

a) Formal learning

b) Informal learning

43. When you tell a 3rd year student under your care to dispense medication to your patient what will you assess?

a) Whether s/he is able to give medicine

b) Whether s/he is under your same employment

c) His/her competence and skills

d) Supervise directly

44. You are mentoring a 3rd year student nurse, the student request that she want to assist a procedure with tissue viability nurse,

how can you deal with this situation

a) Tell her it is not possible

b) Tell her it is possible if you provide direct supervision

c) Call to the college and ask whether it is possible for a 3rd student to assist the procedure

d) Allow her as this is the part of her learning

45. A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing graduate an is describing critical paths and variance analysis to the new

nursing graduate. The registered nurse instructs the new nursing graduate that a variance analysis is performed on all clients:

a) Continuously

b) daily during hospitalization

c) every third day of hospitalization

d) every other day of hospitalization

46. you have assigned a new student to an experienced health care assistant to gain some knowledge in delivering patient care.

The student nurse tells you that the HCA has pushed the client back to the chair when she was trying to stand up. What is

your action

a) As soon as possible after an event has happened (to provide current (up to date) information about the care and condition of

the patient or client)

b) Every hour

c) When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition

d) At the end of the shift

47. Who is responsible for the overall assessment of the student’s fitness to practice and documentation of initial, midterm

and final assessments in the Ongoing Achievement Record (OAR)?

a) The mentor

b) The charge nurse/manager

c) Any registered nurse on same part of the register

48. What is the minimum length of time that a student must be supervised (directly/indirectly) by the mentor on placement?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) Not specified, but as much as possible

d) Depends on the student capabilities

49. Which student require a SOM?

a) All consolidation students who started an NMC approved undergraduate programme which commenced after September 2007.

b) Learners undertaking conversion courses

c) Students on their final placement in 2nd


d) Nurses/midwifes undertaking Mentorship Preparations

e) All midwifery pre-registrations students throughout training

f) Nurses/midwives undertaking SOM Preparation.

50. A nurse educator is providing in-service education to the nursing staff regarding transcultural nursing care. A staff member asks

the nurse educator to describe the concept of acculturation. The most appropriate response in which of the following?

a) It is subjective perspective of the person’s heritage and sense of belonging to a group

b) It is a group of individuals in a society that is culturally distinct and has a unique identity

c) It is a process of learning, a different culture to adapt to a new or change in environment

d) It is a group that share some of the characteristics of the larger population group of which it is a part

51. You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th year nursing students.

a) Allow students to give meds

b) Assess competence of student

c) Get consent of patient

d) Have direct supervision

52. When doing your drug round at midday, you have noticed one of your patient coughing more frequently whilst being

assisted by a nursing student at mealtime. What is your initial action at this situation?

a) tell the student to feed the patient slowly to help stop coughing

b) ask the student to completely stop feeding

c) ask student to allow patient some sips of water to stop coughing

d) ask student to stop feeding and assess patients swallowing

53. According to the royal marsden manual, a staff who observe the removal of chest drainage is considered as?

a) Official training

b) Unofficial training

c) Hours which are not calculated as training hours

d) It is calculated as prescribed training hours.

54. To whom should you delegate a task?

a) Someone who you trust

b) Someone who is competent

c) Someone who you work with regularlyd) All of the above

55. Which of the following is an important principle of delegation?

a) No transfer of authority exists when delegating

b) Delegation is the same as work allocation

c) Responsibility is not transferred with delegation

d) When delegating, you must transfer authority

56. A staff nurse has delegated the ambulating of a new post-op patient to a new staff nurse. Which of the following

situations exhibits the final stage in the process of delegation?

a) Having the new nurse tell the physician the task has been completed.

b) Supervising the performance of the new nurse

c) Telling the unit manager, the task has been completed

d) Documenting that the task has been completed.

57. Which of the following is a specific benefit to an organization when delegation is carried out effectively?

a) Delegates gain new skills facilitating upward mobility

b) The client feels more of their needs are met

c) Managers devote more time to tasks that cannot be delegated

d) The organization benefits by achieving its goals more efficiently

58. The measurement and documentation of vital signs is expected for clients in a long-term facility. Which staff type would it be

a priority to delegate these tasks to?

a) Practical Nurse

b) Registered Nurse

c) Nursing assistant

d) Volunteer

59. Which task should be assigned to the nursing assistant?

Also Read:  Instrumentation :: Quality Assurance Interview Questions Qc Inspection Questions (CBT ARAMCO)

a) Placing the client in seclusion

b) Emptying the Foley catheter for the preclamptic client

c) Feeding the client with dementia

d) Ambulating the client with a fractured hip

60. Independent Advocacy is:

a) Providing general advice

b) Making decisions for someone

c) Care and support work

d) Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do

e) None of the above

61. What is meant by an advocate?

a) Someone who develops opportunities for the patient

b) Someone who has the same beliefs as the patient

c) Someone who does something on behalf of the patient

d) Someone who has the same values as the patient.

62. A Nurse demonstrates patient advocacy by becoming involved in which of the following activities?

a) Taking a public stand on quality issues and educating the public on” public interest” issues

b) Teaching in a school of nursing to help decrease the nursing shortage

c) Engaging in nursing research to justify nursing care delivery

d) Supporting the status quo when changes are pending

63. In the role of patient advocate, the nurse would do which of the following?

a) Emphasize the need for cost-containment measures when making health care decisions

b) Override a patient’s decision when the patient refuses the recommended treatment

c) Support a patient’s decision, even if it is not the decision desired by the nurse

d) Foster patient dependence on health care providers for decision making

64. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?

a) It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.

b) This is the divulging or provision of access to data

c) It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help

d) It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

65. A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The

family wants the patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and benefits of the surgery to the

family and discusses the patient’s wishes with the family. The nurse is acting as the patient’s:

a) Educator

b) Advocate

c) Care giver

d) Case manager

66. A patient with learning disability is accompanied by a voluntary independent mental capacity advocate. What is his role?

a) Express patients’ needs and wishes. Acts as a patient’s representative in expressing their concerns as if they were his own

b) Just to accompany the patient

c) To take decisions on patient’s behalf and provide their own judgements as this benefit the client

d) Is expert and representative’s clients concerns, wishes and views as they cannot express by themselves

67. A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the nurse forgot to administer the morning dose of

furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?

a) Assault

b) Slander

c) Negligence

d) Tort

68. The client is being involuntary committed to the psychiatric unit after threatening to kill his spouse and children.

The involuntary commitment is an example of what bioethical principle?

a) Fidelity

b) Veracity

c) Autonomy

d) Beneficence

69. What is accountability?

Also Read:

a) Ethical and moral obligations permeating the nursing profession

b) To be answerable to oneself and others for one’s own actions.”

c) A systematic approach to maintaining and improving the quality of patient care within a health system (NHS).

d) The process of applying knowledge and expertise to a clinical situation to develop a solution

70. According to the nursing code of ethics, the nurse’s first allegiance is to the:

a) Client and client’s family

b) Client only

c) Healthcare organization

d) Physician

71. Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for managed care?

a) Involvement in the political process.

b) Reshaping current policy.

c) Cost-benefit analysis.

d) Increase in preventive services

72. While at outside setup what care will you give as a Nurse if you are exposed to a situation?

a) Provide care which is at expected level

b) Above what is expected

c) Ignoring the situation

d) Keeping up to professional standards

73. As a nurse, the people in your care must be able to trust you with their health and well being. In order to justify that trust, you

must not:

a) work with others to protect and promote the health and wellbeing of those in your care

b) provide a high standard of practice and care when required

c) always act lawfully, whether those laws relate to your professional practice or personal life

d) be personally accountable for actions and omissions in your practice

74. Describe the primary focus of a manager in a knowledge work environment.

a) Developing the most effective teams

b) Taking risks.

c) Routine work

d) Understanding the history of the organization.

75. In using social media like Facebook, how will you best adhere to your Code of Conduct as a nurse? (CHOOSE 2 ANSWERS)

a) Never have relationship with previous patient

b) Never post pictures concerning your practice

c) Never tell you are a nurse

d) Always rely SOLELY in your FBs privacy setting

76. Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in health care delivery?

a) Recognize the cultural issue related to patient care

b) Request more health plan options

c) Care for more patients even if quality suffers

d) Campaign for fixed nurse patient ratios

77. In an emergency department doctor asked you to do the procedure of cannulation and left the ward. You haven’t done it

before. What would you do?

a) Don’t do it as you are not competent or trained for that & write incident report & inform the supervisor

b) What is the purpose of clinical audit?

c) Do it

d) Ask your colleague to do it

e) Complain to the supervisor that doctor left you in middle of the procedure

78. NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except:

a) Helping to improve advocacy

b) Showing how decisions related to patient care were made

c) Supporting effective clinical judgements and decisions

d) Helping in identifying risks, and enabling early detection of complications

79. When do we need to document?

a) As soon as possible after an event has happened to provide current up to date information about the care and condition of the

patient or client

b) Every hour

c) When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition

d) At the end of the shift

80. All should be seen in a good documentation except:

a) legible handwriting

b) Name and signature, position, date and time

c) Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation and offensive subjective statements

d) A correct, consistent, and factual data

81. A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?

a) Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.

Also Read:  15 Loop Diagram Questions | ARAMCO STANDARD

b) Throw away the page

c) Write line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.

d) Ignore the incident.

82. After finding the patient which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to document on a datix/incident form?

a) “The patient climbed over the side rails and fell out of bed.”

b) “The use of restraints would have prevented the fall.”

c) “Upon entering the room, the patient was found lying on the floor.”

d) “The use of a sedative would have helped keep the patient in bed.”

83. Information can be disclosed in all cases except:

a) When effectively anonymized.

b) When the information is required by law or under a court order.

c) In identifiable form, when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health


d) In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest

84. Adequate record keeping for a medical device should provide evidence of:

a) A unique identifier for the device, where appropriate

b) A full history, including date of purchase and where appropriate when it was put into use, deployed or installed

c) Any specific legal requirements and whether these have been met

d) Proper installation and where it was deployed

e) Schedule and details of maintenance and repairs

f) The end-of-life date, if specified

g) All of the above

85. A registered nurse had a very busy day as her patient was sick, got intubated & had other life saving procedures. She

documented all the events & by the end of the shift recognized that she had documented in other patient’s record. What is best

response of the nurse?

a) She should continue documenting in the same file as the medical document cannot be corrected

b) She should tear the page from the file & start documenting in the correct record

c) She should put a straight cut over her documentation & write as wrong, sign it with her NMC code, date & time

d) She should write as wrong documentation in a bracket & continue

86. Barbara, a frail lady who lives alone with her cat, was brought in A&E via ambulance after a neighbour found her lying in

front of her house. No doctor is available to see her immediately. Barbara told you she is worried about her cat who is alone

in the house. How will you best reply to her?

a. “You should worry about yourself and not the cat.”

b. “Your cat sounded like very dear to you. Can I ask your neighbour to check?”

c. “Do you want me to see you cat also? I cannot do that now.” d. “Your cat can

look after itself, I am sure.”

a) Focus on rewarding current staff for doing a good job with their assigned tasks by selecting them for promotion. 

b) Prepare these managers so that they will focus on maintaining standards of care 

c) Prepare these managers to oversee the entire health care organization 

d) Prepare these managers to interact with hospital administration. 

92. A nurse manager is planning to implement a change in the method of the documentation system for the nursing unit. Many 

problems have occurred as a result of the present documentation system, and the nurse manager determines that a change is 

required. The initial step in the process of change for the nurse manager is which of the following? 

a) plan strategies to implement the change

b) identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction

c) identify potential solutions and strategies for the change process 

93. What are the key competencies and features for effective collaboration? 

a) Effective communication skills, mutual respect, constructive feedback, and conflict management. 

b) High level of trust and honesty, giving and receiving feedback, and decision making. 

c) Mutual respect and open communication, critical feedback, cooperation, and willingness to share ideas and decisions. 

d) Effective communication, cooperation, and decreased competition for scarce resources. 

94. All of the staff nurses on duty noticed that a newly hired staff nurse has been selective of her tasks. All of them thought that 

she has a limited knowledge of the procedures. What should the manager do in this situation? 

a) Reprimand the new staff nurse in front of everyone that what she is doing is unacceptable. 

b) Call the new nurse and talk to her privately; ask how the manager can be of help to improve her situation 

c) Ignore the incident and just continue with what she was doing. 

d) Assign someone to guide the new staff nurse until she is competent in doing her tasks. 

95. What do you mean by a bad leadership? 

a) Appreciate intuitiveness 

b) Appreciate better work 

c) Reward poor performance

96. There have been several patient complaints that the staff members of the unit are disorganized and that “no one seems to

know what to do or when to do it.” The staff members concur that they don’t have a real sense of direction and guidance

from their leader. Which type of leadership is this unit experiencing?

a) Autocratic.

b) Bureaucratic.

c) Laissez-faire.

d) Authoritarian.

97. Ms. Castro is newly-promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in management

and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for services

and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?

a) Organization Man

b) Impoverished Management

c) Country Club Management

d) Team Management

98. Ms. Jones is newly promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in management

and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for services and

high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?

a) Country Club Management

b) Organization Man

c) Impoverished Management

d) Team Management

99. When group members are unable and unwilling to participate in making a decision, which leadership style should the nurse

manager use?

a) Participative

b) Authorian

c) Laissez faire

d) Democratic

100. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the following theories?

a. Trait

b. Charismatic

c. Great Man

d. Situational

More Questions :

Leave a Reply